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Posted by parhad (Guest) - Friday, July 2 2004, 4:25:21 (CEST)
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blowing over Hebrew sillies.....

Written by Adam on 02 Jul 2004 02:17:12:

As an answer to: Re: The causes of the Assyrian Genocide written by George Kinas(An Answer to Aramaean) on 01 Jul 2004 22:52:50:

The story of Abraham is nothing more than fiction.
Researchers have concluded that if Abraham existed he would have lived about 2000 years B.C.
There were no Chaldeans nore Arameans at that time. The first mention of the Arameans is from the Assyrians sources in the 13th century. How could Abraham be an Aramean when they would exist 700 years later?
The first mention of the Chaldeans in history is in the tenth century that means Abraham was removed from the Chaldeans by a 1000 years.
The first mention of Arabs in history is about 9th century which means the origion of Arabs is about 1200 years later than Abraham. How could the son of Abraham be the father of Arabs?

The city of Ur in 2000 B.C. was Sumerian and not Chaldean therefore the term Ur of Chaldee at that time did not exist.
In fact Jews themselves did not exist until 1400 B.C. which means they were removed from Abraham by 600 years.

The reason you have such disparities is because the story of Abraham was put into writing during the Jews exile in Babylon. At that time the city of Ur was ruled by the neo Babylonian dynisty whose kings were of chaldean heritage. The Arabs, Jews, Arameans existed but the writers did not know that at the time of Abraham none of them existed. Furthermore these writers did not know much about Sumerians that is why they are not mentioned at all in the Old Testament. As you see Old Testament is not always correct in describing the historical events.

Adam

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