why didnīt the Turks subject their Jewish subjects to "genocide"? |
Posted by
pancho
(Moderator)
- Thursday, September 23 2010, 17:34:03 (UTC) from *** - *** - Windows NT - Internet Explorer Website: Website title: |
....why not? We hear over and over how the Turks decided on a policy of "Turkification"...that all ethnic and religious minorities had to be "cleansed" and forced under one umbrella etc. Why not the Jews? Why didnīt the Jews in the Ottoman Empire suffer the same "massacres" as the Christians? If the Turks were as bloodthirsty and hellbent on wiping out minorities and religious groups...why not the Jews? Well, had the Jews taken weapons and pay from the Euro Christians to use against their own neighbors and nation, Iīve no doubt they would have suffered retaliation, which is what it was...cruel, bitter, murderous but retaliation none the less...not genocide....and not as a result of any deep-seated and "historic" hatred for anyone BUT a Turk. Of course the Jews would never have taken such a treasonous route because they never trusted Christians, and for good reason. Christians were the ones hounding them to death for centuries...they knew they were better off among Muslims, siding with their own nation and fellow-citizens. But if they had, does anyone doubt they would have received equal treatment? What does this tell us except that the Turks were not out to cleanse their empire of anything but traitors...unfortunately, since the traitors hid among the civilian population there was no quick way to tell who was who...so many innocent people suffered...but that wasnīt the fault of the Turks but rather the damfools who chose such a moment to revolt....a time when a nation is fighting for its life from outside forces and now has to contend with inner treason as well. Any other nation, especially a Christian nation, would have done the same...or worse. --------------------- |
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